Fire Captain Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• The 1st Arriving Truck Company is assigned to which group on the First Alarm?
• In an MCI, what is the primary duty of the first due company?
• In Tethered Boat Operations, where is the crew leader located?
• In Downstream V operations, what is the minimum number of shore rescuers on each side to enable contact with the victim?
• Swiftwater is defined as water moving at a rate greater than:
• Which option correctly identifies the definition of technical rescue?
• Not-Threatened requires specific conditions to be present for a structure to be considered safe at initial fire front contact. Which description matches Not-Threatened?
• Anchor and Hold relies on which resources to stop spread?
• What is one of the initial tasks for the 1st Arriving Truck Company?
• On the First Alarm, what is the primary priority of the Ventilation Group?
• During the Command Mode brief report to ECC, which information is included?
• In the Tactical Engagement Principle, which element refers to applying firefighting power at tactically advantageous points?
• Which statement best describes the Check & Go tactic?
• Shelter Deployment Zones are intended for use when survival options are exhausted. True or False?
• Which term describes a rescue where a rescuer enters the water to make contact with a victim?
• All tactical priorities and decisions will be based on what acronym?
• In the PACE framework, which plan is primarily focused on firefighter safety and mission objectives and yields the most desirable results?
• Which unit obtains hospital destination from MEDCOM and records on ICS-MC-306?
• Solar Plan includes which city?
• For the 7th Arriving Engine Company On Deck, which check-in strips are used?
• 3rd Arriving Engine Company: What is the primary action?
• What happens to the 1st Arriving Engine Company after initiating fire attack?
• Primary Immediate Actions of the First Responder in a HAZ-MAT incident include which of the following?
• Which is the second priority in the initial five priorities of an MCI?
• Mass Care ESF is assigned to which organization?
• Which form is used to copy triage information to the MC-306 during transport?
• Which element is included in the Elements of a Good ROC (Wildland)?
• Which tactical frequency corresponds to Fireground Operations?
• What does the Threatened Non-Defensible category imply?
• What is the first action of the 1st Arriving Engine Company responding to a structure fire in Rescue Mode?
• Which document includes the command confirmation with name and location of the ICP?
• Which standpipe is dry and designed for fire department use with 2 1/2 inch outlets?
• Shelter Deployment Zone is used as a last resort when fire conditions compromise escape routes, temporary refuge areas, and safety zones. Which statement best reflects its use?
• Urban Search and Rescue ESF is assigned to which agency?
• What does MTZ stand for in interagency response planning?
• In the PACE framework, what does the letter A stand for?
• Which factor concerns the effect of the IAP application?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a type of biological agent?
• Containment methods include Dike, Dam, and Divert; what is a 'Dike'?
• The 8th Arriving Engine Company on the Second Alarm is assigned to Staging. What is the required minimum distance for the Staging Area below the fire floor?
• Which of the following is NOT a PRIMARY TACTIC?
• A Report on Conditions must include which essential elements?
• What is the minimum clearance around a structure as indicated in the Structure Assessment Checklist?
• Which plan in PACE is entirely focused on firefighter survival?
• What is the recommended application point for Class A Foam during direct attack?
• At 9 mph current, the approximate force on the body is:
• Which city is included in the PROS PLAN?
• Which rate of spread corresponds to 1-3 mph and typically requires ordering additional resources?
• Which item is addressed by the Downhill Checklist (if applicable)?
• When should Tactical Patrol be initiated?
• Who is responsible for establishing the ambulance staging area in an MCI?
• What is the minimum diameter of a safety zone relative to flame height?
• Before interior attack operations in a structure fire, what rule must be met?
• In Investigation mode, who does the Engine Company Officer accompany?
• Which class is Explosives in the nine HazMat classes?
• Which statement best defines a confined space?
• Which statement best defines a terrorist?
• 6th Arriving Engine Company: What is their role?
• Which Swiftwater tactic uses a non-motorized rescue boat?
• Where does the RIC proceed after check-in?
• What is the primary role of the 3rd Arriving Engine Company?
• Which agency is responsible for Transportation ESF?
• Where is the Bill of Lading located?
• Fire Front Following tactic purpose?
• Which frequency is responsible for RIC Activation?
• Which is NOT part of OCFA Risk Management Plan?
• 2nd Arriving Engine Company: Who assumes command?
• Anchor and Hold tactic objective?
• Which statement best defines Mutual Aid?
• Which of the following is not listed as a level of contamination?
• Bump and Run tactic main characteristics?
• Which items are part of the Risk Management Process?
• Using the National Fire Academy Fire Flow Formula, the required GPM for a building is (Length x Width)/3. If a building is 60 ft long and 40 ft wide, what is the required GPM?
• In START triage, which color tag represents Minor priority?
• What is the primary function of the High Rise Base?
• Which level of DRAW-D includes active burnout operations?
• MODE in ROC?
• Which of the following is NOT a class of chemical agents?
• Which functions does the High Rise Systems group perform?
• If controls are not in place for identified hazards, what should you do?
• What are the operational priorities for a hazardous materials release or incident?
• Which of the following is a listed use for helicopters in water rescue operations?
• Which of the following is a S-FACTS category?
• Which of the following is NOT an OCFA incident objective?
• When should Transfer of Command be announced on all Tactical and Command frequencies?
• Under Hazardous Materials in the Structure Assessment Checklist, which symbols should you look for to identify hazards?
• What action does the 10th Arriving Engine Company perform on the Second Alarm?
• What should firefighters do if there is doubt about safety while using a TRA?
• Which statement best describes the 4th Arriving Engine Company's potential assignment?
• Which agency functions as IC for HazMat incidents at state facilities and properties where CHP has the most specific investigative authority?
• Which of the following is a SECONDARY tactic?
• Static-water Rescue refers to rescue of live victims in lakes, ponds and reservoirs where the water current is not a consideration in rescuer safety.
• Which statement is a characteristic of a permit-required confined space?
• Which environmental factor causes the rate of spread to double for each 20 percent increase?
• Who is assigned to the Rapid Intervention Crew (RIC) in the High Rise SOG?
• Which document is reviewed during Transfer of Command?
• Which is a duty of the Triage Unit Leader?
• When declaring emergency traffic, what is the first item you should transmit?
• In the wildland-structure interface, what is a key risk?
• What best describes an Assistance-by-hire contract for services?
• Which of the following is a step the Battalion Chief will take upon arrival on the First Alarm?
• Which describes 'Prep and Go' tactic?
• In DRAW-D, which level involves anchoring and flanking with direct or indirect attack?
• Intermix is a wildland-structure condition characterized by what?
• ICS designates three resource status categories. Which is one?
• Which resource can be used for both static and swiftwater rescues?
• Which standpipe is wet, directly connected to a water supply with 2 1/2 inch outlets and may or may not have a fire pump?
• Which statement correctly describes the 9th Arriving Engine Company's Stand-By assignment?
• What is recommended regarding equipment placement during structure protection?
• Which mode is used for investigations?
• Which statement about Fire Front Following is most accurate?
• Which acronym relates to OCFA tactical priorities, REVAS or RECEO?
• On the First Alarm, what is the minimum distance the Incident Command Post must be set up from the building?
• In Vehicle Extrication Priority, what is the first priority?
• Span of control is best described as:
• According to CAL FIRE Structure Defense Tactical Operating Principles, what is the most effective form of structure defense?
• Ground Support: What must be obtained before considering elevator use?
• What is the minimum water reserve recommended to keep in the tank during structure protection?
• Which of the following is a duty of the 7th Arriving Engine Company On Deck on the Second Alarm?
• Which rescue operation is described as highly hazardous and should be avoided if a safer option exists?
• Who bears responsibility for providing defensible space prior to a fire emergency?
• If the 1st Arriving Engine Company has not secured a water supply, what action should be taken?
• The plan of operation must identify which items?
• CAL FIRE Structure Protection Tactical Operating Principle implies what as primary objective?
• Which Emergency Support Function is Information and Planning assigned to in the Federal Response Plan?
• What role does the Company Officer assume when the RIC is formed?
• The 5th & 6th Arriving Engine, 2nd Arriving Truck, and 1st Arriving Paramedic Ambulance/Squad are assigned to which function?
• Powered Boat Rescue is a tactic at which level?
• During structure triage guidelines, which fuel-related concern should be checked near the structure?
• RIC monitors which Tactical Areas (TACs)?
• Which of the following is NOT a condition for the ICP setup?
• What does the acronym LAST stand for in rescue operations?
• What is the first step for the 1st Arriving Division Chief in High-Rise operations?
• Water rescues present themselves in three basic forms. Which is NOT one of these forms?
• During HazMat incident planning, what does IDHA help develop?
• What is the minimum safe distance from unknown or gaseous releases?
• Which statement best differentiates Automatic Aid from Mutual Aid?
• Division Supervisors should supervise which functions within geographic areas when possible?
• In an MCI, which action is assigned to the second due company?
• Under NFPA 1670, which level is primarily responsible for supervising other technician and operations qualified personnel?
• Which element of the Tactical Engagement Principle provides flexibility, sustains power, and maintains momentum?
• Ground Support responsibilities include which of the following?
• What is the objective of initial hose line selection on structure fires?
• What is the minimum crew size for Paddle Boat Operations, and where is the crew leader positioned?
• Which engine type is the best choice for wildland urban interface operations?
• What is the standard minimum diameter for a supply line used initially?
• Which action is NOT part of the Evacuation Group duties?
• In a Pincer Attack, teams start at a common anchor point and split to work both flanks. This statement is:
• Size Up is a continual mental process that evaluates incident conditions and forms the basis for the incident action plan.
• Non-compliance of OSHA Two In/Two Out rules requires what action?
• Which item is a Critical Fireground Factor?
• Which statement about Command mode is NOT true?
• What is Leaders Intent in wildfire operations?
• Pincer Attack is described as a direct attack around a fire in opposite directions by two or more attack units. Where do crews typically start from?
• Which of the following is a PRIMARY tactic for structure protection?
• MTZ stands for what?
• Tactical Patrol emphasizes which core approach?
• In the Logistics category, which statement best describes the role of Logistics Tac?
• Which form does the Ambulance Coordinator (If activated) use to report ambulance resource status?
• In High Rise 3 crew rotation, which position is located just outside the entry point, ready to relieve Fire Attack?
• What is the first operational priority at a hazardous materials incident?
• Which class of chemical agents includes hydrogen cyanide?
• Which standard defines the swiftwater speed threshold?
• Which is the third step in Recognition-primed decision making (RPD)?
• What is the first function of command?
• ICS Form 321 is used for documenting structure triage observations during structure defense operations.
• In High Rise 3 crew rotation, Stand-By is located where?
• Temporary Refuge Area (TRA) is used for what purpose?
• Swiftwater Shore Based Operations includes which of the following?
• Which entities should be notified by the ECC when a Haz-Mat response is needed?
• What is the first priority in a Mass Casualty Incident?
• In a High Rise incident, what role does the Lobby primarily fill in the early stages?
• Which is NOT one of the B-NICE categories?
• In the DRAW-D levels of engagement, which level represents waiting until conditions modify sufficiently before taking further action to maximize long-term effectiveness?
• What is the assignment for the 2nd Arriving Truck Company on the Second Alarm?
• Which rule requires two personnel to be inside and two to be outside during operations?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a Swiftwater Rescue Tactical Priority?
• Which standpipe is a wet system connected to a water supply with 2 1/2 inch outlets and feeds into the sprinkler system?
• What is the role of the 2nd Arriving Fire Department Paramedic Ambulance/Squad on the Second Alarm?
• Which option is a correct pairing of Tactical Frequency and its responsibility?
• Who is responsible for Size Up?
• What best defines Automatic Aid?
• In a confined space entry, which roles must be filled as a minimum?
• In START triage, which color tag indicates Immediate priority?
• What is a duty of the 2nd Arriving Battalion Chief - Interior Branch Director on the Second Alarm?
• If hydrants may not work due to power loss, which water source is suggested for drafting?
• Which statement about alpha radiation is correct?
• Which item is NOT typically listed in a Structure Assessment Checklist?
• Which of the following is included to assist the Rapid Intervention Crew (RIC)?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a step in Recognition-primed decision making (RPD)?
• 4th Arriving Engine Company: What is the first priority for the Ventilation Group?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a Lobby area?
• Which statement best defines a High Rise as used in these SOGs?
• Which tactical frequency is used for coordination of personnel assigned to Divisions/Groups?
• Which word is listed as the first characteristic of SMART incident objectives?
• Which statement correctly distinguishes a Size-Up from a ROC?
• Best management practices include the use of metrics in strategic planning to do which of the following?
• In START triage, which color tag is assigned to Deceased?
• Which agency is responsible for Hazardous Materials ESF?
• In an initial attack situation, how does fuel moisture affect rate of spread?
• What is the number one operational priority in CAL FIRE's approach to structure defense?
• Which is NOT a component of Size Up?
• 5th Arriving Engine Company: What is the primary task?
• Which operation involves deploying a rope across a river from two points on shore?
• Which item is included in the ROC?
• Which suppression tool is mentioned as potentially adversely affecting fire behavior?
• Which of the following is NOT a type of incendiary device?
• During the Evaluate phase, which prompt asks what is changing in the situation?
• Who becomes the Staging Area Manager for the 8th Arriving Engine Company?
• Which item is NOT listed as a responsibility of Command?
• Burning Index is calculated as flame length multiplied by what?
• In Fast Attack Mode, who is responsible for passing Command to the second arriving engine company?
• Which activity is part of Situation Awareness?
• In incident evaluation, what is described by 'What will happen'?
• Which color is not used as a START triage category?
• OCFA Tactical Priorities includes which primary focus?
• Which is a reason to update the ROC?
• Which role is part of the ICS Command Staff?
• How many times is a Size-Up performed by the IC during an incident?
• When you exceed your span of control, which action is appropriate to address it?
• Under NFPA 1670, which level is primarily responsible for scene size-up and not performing technical rescue tasks?
• The CAN Report coordination is handled by which position?
• Which item is listed as number seven in OCFA Critical Fireground Factors?
• Which mode of operation is announced by the first unit at the scene?
• What does the FIRESCOPE standard evacuation signal consist of?
• In the Command Mode for the first arriving engine company, which action is performed to secure water?
• Which is a function of command?
• Which is a duty of the Treatment Unit Leader?
• Which fuel type transition results in a fourfold increase in rate of spread?
• When connecting to a hydrant, which factor should be considered?
• Which describes 'Prep and Defend' tactic?
• Which is a step in IRPG Risk Management Plan?
• What is the first action for the 1st Arriving Engine Company under High Rise SOG?
• Which rate of spread is defined as greater than 3 mph with significant augmentation of initial attack resources?
• In CAL FIRE, Structure Defense Groups should remain flexible and mobile to initiate perimeter control actions within the division if needed. Which describes their role?
• On the arrival of the 2nd Arriving Engine Company, who assumes Command if the 1st arriving Engine is in Fast Attack Mode or Rescue Mode?
• Which agency has primary investigative authority for on-highway HazMat incidents in incorporated areas excluding freeways?
• Which option correctly pairs a High Rise Tactical Frequency with its responsibility?
• Which engine type is considered most effective for wildland-urban-interface structure protection?
• Which item is typically included on a tactical worksheet?